James White8:38
All right, well good afternoon. I think this may be one of the earliest debates I've done in the day. And in fact, congratulations, you all are in attendance at my 180th moderated public debate. I had no idea in 1990 when I started debating Jerry Matatics at a large Catholic church in Long Beach, California, that that was going to lead me to Tullahoma, yes. God's providence. It is good to be here. Thanks to Brother Ross for being here as well. It's going to freak me out because the doctor who did my cardiac ablation in 2011 was Thomas Ross, so if you start touching my heart, I'm running. So that's just all there is to it. But it's great to be with you. I actually have more time; I thought we only had 20 minutes, so my prepared material is only for 20 minutes. So let's tell some dogs, no. Let's just we can get to talk a little bit more slowly than I would otherwise; that'll be very, very useful. Now why are we here? We have an important subject to discuss, and I'm looking forward to this particular perspective. I've debated the issue of the King James Only movement for a long time, but this is going to allow us to shed a little different light on the subject because I'm defending the idea that not only is this the best-looking Legacy Standard Bible in existence in the world... Oh, I'm sorry dude. No, oh I'm sorry. But the Legacy Standard Bible is superior to the King James Version, and I believe very, very firmly the King James translators would be on my side in this debate. I believe that they would definitely support the thesis that I am putting forward, and I want you to understand that, and hopefully that will lead us to some very interesting conversation. I'm going to give you three reasons why the thesis needs to be supported and affirmed. First, the LSB is textually superior to the KJV. That is, the text upon which it is based is superior to the text that was available to the King James translators. That was all they had, and we'll discuss that a little bit more at that particular point in time in the debate. But today, the LSB has a superior text that it is translating and providing to us in English than was available to the King James translators. We have found far more manuscripts and have much more knowledge of the manuscripts than they had at that particular time in history. Secondly, the LSB is lexically superior to the KJV. I will not spend a lot of time on this, but the fact of the matter is we have learned much about the languages, both Hebrew and Greek, that was unknown at the beginning of the 17th century, between 1604 and 1611 when the King James was being translated. We have learned much more about the relationship of those languages to other languages, and so our understanding of the lexical backgrounds has improved greatly, and the King James translators would be very, very appreciative and would expect us to utilize that information to improve our Bible translations today. Finally, the LSB is translationally superior to the KJV. That is, we've learned more about those languages, not just as to the meanings of words, but we have learned more about those languages as to the grammar and syntax of those languages, so that we can translate them more accurately today than we could in 1611. Now first, I want to just throw this out here, and hopefully it will help us to have a sort of a foundation to stand on. I wish to point out a startling reality. I believe firmly that the King James translators would be completely on my side in the debate today. Their preface to the reader, which unfortunately is not published in most King James Bibles today—if you have a Cambridge or something like that, you might have the preface to the reader in there; it's not a short piece of material—it was written by the translators and it gives their translational methodology and a defense of a new translation, because theirs was the new kid on the block when it came out. That preface to the reader makes this very, very clear. The King James translators believed that translations should be in the common language, understandable and accessible, just as the original preaching was in ancient days. And so the idea of having a translation that is not in the language of the people, that is difficult to understand, that requires them to carry a dictionary with them to figure things out, is the exact opposite of the perspective that they had. They believed the translation should be in the common language, understandable and accessible to people. They also believed that translations must differ from one another, and as long as the intention of the original authors is sought, even the meanest or the least fancy translation is the word of God. In fact, they even defend themselves because they knew that there would be people who would say, 'Well, the Catholics are better at doing stuff like that; just leave it to the Catholics.' And they said, 'No, even the meanest translation that honestly seeks to render the meaning of the original is to be called the word of God.' And so they were in no way, shape, or form saying that the translations that came before theirs were inferior, weren't the word of God, were being replaced, anything like that at all. That's just not what they believed. They believed that difficult texts should have notes providing alternate translations and possibilities, and they provided that. And while again, it's a shame that a lot of the King James printings today do not include the many, many, many marginal notes the King James translators themselves provided. So they were not saying that this text that I'm putting, we're putting in the text, is the final word, because if you translate in one way and then put a little star that says 'or it could be this,' obviously you're not saying that what you put in the text is the only way it can be translated, the only way it can be understood. And yet they did that. That's a very important thing to keep in mind. Their new translation, they knew, would be opposed by those preferring older translations. Hence, there would be other translations in the future. They never envisioned the KJV as the final word. And in fact, I think they would be stunned to find out that 400 years down the road there would be anybody that would be defending their translation as the only translation you should use. They would be absolutely beyond comment, amazed that anyone could actually come up with that perspective. They would expect that there would be many translations that would have long eclipsed theirs by the time four centuries had passed by. That is truly where they're coming from. So let's look at the three points that I want to present, and hopefully we'll do so with clarity. The LSB utilizes far, far more manuscript evidence than was even dreamed of by the KJV translators, who would have loved to have had access to what we have today. While they used printed texts based upon a handful of manuscripts, the LSB has access to manuscripts a solid 1800 to 1200 years older than those used by Erasmus, for example, for the New Testament. Now in regards to the Old Testament, not so much. The 1525 Bomberg was used there, and the current Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia are very, very similar; there are very few differences between them as far as the Hebrew text is concerned. But as far as the New Testament is concerned, we have so much more access to so many more manuscripts today than they had at that time. And you must understand that the ability to know which manuscripts were which, to have a number designated to them, to know what they contain, where they are stored—that is very much a modern convenience that we have only had for a very short period of time. They did not have access to that kind of information that we have access to today, and that the LSB translators certainly had access to as well. So as a result, the LSB represents more closely the words of the Apostles themselves in many places. And for the sake of time, we'll look at only three of these examples, but I think if you write them down, I think they'll end up being a part of the conversation later on during the cross-examination. In Ephesians 3:9, the KJV follows Erasmus. And the King James translators had the five editions of Erasmus; they had Stephanus, especially the 1550, and they primarily relied especially upon Beza's 1598 versions. They were not examining manuscripts; they were examining printed editions of the Greek New Testament. Now there were differences between all of those, and they made decisions between them, but they were primarily translating from printed editions of the Greek New Testament at that particular point in time. And Erasmus, Desiderius Erasmus, the Dutch humanist scholar, he was the first one to print and publish a Greek New Testament—actually a diglot, Latin and Greek—and he had a very small number of manuscripts available to him. And he had access to a single one-off manuscript from around the 12th century, number 2817 as its designation today, that stands opposed to nearly the entire manuscript tradition of the Greek New Testament. So in Ephesians 3:9, the KJV reads 'fellowship' while the Greek manuscripts, Latin manuscripts, Coptic Sahidic, Bohairic, all other versions, and all of the patristic citations read 'administration.' That is, the one manuscript 2817 that Erasmus had had 'koinonia' whereas everybody else has 'oikonomia.' Now you say, 'Well, they sound similar.' Yeah, but they're very different words, very different meanings between the two of them. Now this is a simple scribal error in a 12th-century manuscript that, due to its use by Erasmus, became the textual reading of what is today called the Textus Receptus, the TR. But remember that Textus Receptus that people have today, the small little blue case-bound edition published by the Trinitarian Bible Society, for example, that Textus Receptus was actually created in the late 19th century by Scrivener. And how he did it is he looked at the King James. So he took all of Erasmus and Stephanus and Beza, and when they differed, he looked at the King James translation to make a Greek New Testament. So it's a Greek New Testament based upon an English translation. That's what we're talking about when we talk about the Textus Receptus. So one manuscript has a reading in it, and it goes against all the other manuscripts that were much, much older, and the sermons, and the translations, and everything. And yet that ended up, because Erasmus was doing what he was doing, that ended up in the Textus Receptus, and that is the basis of the King James translation today. And so I think someone who has... and this is very, very important: we have to ask the question, 'What do you want?' What do you want? I want to know what Paul wrote when Paul wrote that letter to the church at Ephesus. What did he want to communicate back then? Not what a scribe 1200 years later thought he should have said. What did he want to communicate at that time? That has to be our standard. That has to be our goal. If we have anything other than that, then we're not really doing textual critical work any longer. I think it's very, very important. This is a simple error that is very clear and very easy to fix as well in light of the manuscript evidence. Then we have another text, Revelation 16:5. The reading of all known Greek manuscripts at Revelation 16:5 is 'hosios,' which means 'the Holy One,' while the KJV, following Beza's edition from 1598, going against Erasmus and Stephanus, has 'and shall be' from 'esomenos.' Now what were you talking about here? The Greek manuscripts are united in saying that what is in Revelation 16:5 should be 'the one who is and who was, the Holy One.' Every Christian that we can see for the first 1600 years of this era read Revelation 16:5 the same way. But Beza, Calvin's successor at Geneva, in putting together his 1598, felt that the phrase 'who was and is' should be finished off with 'and is to come.' And looking at the term 'esomenos,' thought that it was close enough in form to be the proper reading rather than 'hosios,' which means 'the Holy One.' And there's a Latin comment that he made that some people understand to be saying that he had a manuscript or something that read that way. We don't have any today that have that reading. Revelation, by the way, is the book that has the fewest manuscripts of any New Testament book, probably because it fought for inclusion in the canon. And there are lots of problems in the King James and the Textus Receptus in the Book of Revelation because Erasmus didn't have a manuscript for Revelation. He had a commentary in Latin with the Greek text embedded in the Latin, and he had to extract it out of the commentary. It's all he had. You might say, 'Why didn't he fix it? I mean, if he was rushing in his first edition, which he was, why didn't he fix it later on?' Well, I wondered about that myself. Two reasons: first of all, Erasmus had a very low view of the Book of Revelation; he didn't really think it was Scripture. And secondly, he thought he did fix it when he did his second edition. He told his printer, he said, 'You know, others have put out a Greek New Testament since then. There were some brothers that had put one out. Go get theirs and use their copy of Revelation and fix mine.' There's only one problem: they had used Erasmus's for the Book of Revelation, so it was the same thing. And so it didn't get fixed. And there are numerous errors in Revelation, this just being one of them, that we can point to where the King James reads very, very differently than the Greek manuscripts themselves did. Famously, the LSB contains the text of 1 John 5:7 as it was transmitted in the Greek manuscript tradition all the way to just before the Reformation itself, while the KJV has the famous addition utterly unknown in the Greek manuscripts and clearly imported around the 6th century into the Latin tradition called the Comma Johanneum: 'For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost, and these three are one.' This is probably one of the most famous of the texts that we would deal with at this point. But I would simply make a rather bold statement at this point: if 1 John 5:7 as found in the King James Version of the Bible is the original reading, then we have very little reason to believe that we can know with any certainty what the New Testament ever read from the start. The reason being that text, if it's original, disappeared in toto from the Greek manuscript tradition until it was restored via reference to the Latin in the third decade of the 16th century. That means for 1500 years, the original language of 1 John was corrupted, and the proper reading in a vitally important theological reading was missing. I don't believe that. I believe God has preserved His text. And if you believe 1 John 5:7 should be there, then He didn't. He may have had to re-inspire it, but He didn't preserve it for century after century after century of Christians. A vitally important text theologically speaking. The LSB recognizes that and has the text as the Greek manuscript tradition would present it, not as it would be corrupted by an insertion which was probably a marginal note from the Latin which eventually came into the Textus Receptus. Erasmus did not have it in his first two editions; he included it in his third, along with a lengthy note as to why he felt it was not original. But that's still what is in the basis of the King James Version of the Bible. So as I said, that's the first text. So there are three references at least we can look at. There are hundreds of others that we can look at. So lexical: I'm not going to spend a lot of time on this. The KJV was translated prior to the discovery of the vast majority of ancient texts: Ugaritic, Aramaic, Coptic, ancient Babylonian, etc. As a result, they struggled with many terms, and they mentioned this in the preface, by the way, especially in the Hebrew text relating to flora, fauna, mineralogy, etc. Today we have cognate language texts that cast vast light upon these words that the translators themselves admitted were difficult. They talked about this in the preface, and they frequently put a note saying, 'We're not sure what this is making reference to.' Well, we have found all sorts of things since then which now help us to go, 'Oh, it was talking about that particular kind of a gem, or that kind of a fish, or that kind of a bird, etc., etc.' They did not have access to so much of what has been discovered since the beginning of the 17th century. And so our lexicons today, whether we're talking about Hebrew, Aramaic, or Greek, have much broader, fuller foundations than they had at that particular point in time. And so the LSB is able to utilize that material and provide us with a better translation as a result. And finally, translationally superior: starting a century ago, we began unearthing papyri that have provided us with the extra-biblical context of the New Testament in particular. We have discovered that the Greek of the New Testament is not some 'Holy Ghost Greek' as some people thought it was, but the common Koine Greek of the first century. As a result, we are able to produce significantly more accurate translations of Koine Greek today since we have so many more examples of how it functioned at that time. There are hundreds of examples that could be given. The KJV uses a ton of archaic language that the KJV translators themselves would never think should be enforced upon people centuries later. Look at these terms from Jack Lewis's book, just a few of them that we have here in the KJV: 'almug,' 'algum,' 'chode,' 'chiroshim,' 'chapped,' 'earing,' 'gat,' 'habergeon,' 'hosen,' 'cab,' 'knob,' 'ligueur,' 'leasing,' 'Maranatha'—we all know what that one means—'nard,' 'Nisan,' 'pate,' 'pilled,' 'Raboni,' 'Raqqa,' 'ringstraked,' 'stomacher,' and you can read the rest of them yourself. In other words, there are all sorts of terms. Even my old Scofield, my New Scofield Reference Bible, changed all these and provided us with... well, it does say 'mufflers' too, but I can guarantee you that's not the mufflers we have on our cars or anything like that today. Massive numbers of terms that we would not utilize today. One of my favorites is, I think it's 1 Kings 11:1, when it says Solomon married many 'strange women.' Now I'm sure he probably did, but that wasn't what the reference was referring to. It is referring to foreign women. It was explaining why his heart was dragged away into idolatry because he married foreign women. The King James says he married 'strange women.' Well, that's not what it means anymore. And so the LSB is superior in its translation at that time. Now one simple error in translation is easily recognized but very hard to explain away: Acts 5:30. The King James Version says, 'The God of our fathers raised up Jesus, whom ye slew and hanged on a tree.' Think about what that's actually saying. Look at the LSB: 'The God of our fathers raised up Jesus, whom you put to death by hanging him on a tree.' The participle there is the means by which he was slain—by being hung upon a tree. They didn't kill him and then hang his body on a tree. The King James simply missed the translation of the participle. And so you have to be able to admit, 'Yep, they missed a translation.' The LSB is superior there. Very clearly. One clear and compelling example is Titus 2:13. And this one is theologically important: 'Looking for the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ.' LSB: both terms 'God' and 'Savior' applying to the one person Jesus Christ is called the Granville Sharp construction. The KJV has: 'Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Savior Jesus Christ.' That distinguishes between 'our great God' and 'our Savior.' It does not clearly communicate the fact that the underlying text is applying both 'God' and 'Savior' to Jesus. Now there's a reason for this: Granville Sharp didn't discover that rule until long after the King James was translated. That's where we've advanced in our understanding. So the LSB has a more accurate translation because of the continuation of our understanding of the underlying languages themselves. Another is found in Romans 9:5. The LSB says: 'Whose are the fathers, and from whom is the Christ according to the flesh, who is God over all, blessed forever. Amen.' The King James says: 'Whose are the fathers, and of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came, who is over all, God blessed forever. Amen.' That's different. That's saying Jesus is blessed by God. LSB is saying Jesus is God. Now I've heard lots of King James Onlyists really go crazy on passages like that: 'Oh, those modern translators are trying to deny the deity of Christ.' You can do the same thing in the King James here—we won't, because they weren't—but you could do that kind of thing at this point. So why this debate? Well, the reality is the KJV Only movement is rooted in two equally dangerous mindsets: one, a commitment to a traditional position, and a modernistic idea of certainty. So to go back in the past, you will see situations where, for example, Jerome and Augustine argued about how to translate things. And when Jerome put out the Vulgate, people rioted in the streets because he changed what the Greek Septuagint said. They had a traditional text, and even when he was accurate, they rebelled against that. But then the Vulgate became the traditional text for 1100 years. And so when Erasmus comes along and dares to challenge that, he's attacked one minute. But now you have the King James Version versus all modern translations, and that causes the same kind of thing where you have a traditional position. Christians recognize the existence of copious errors in manuscripts, as all people did from the beginning. The perfection of copying did not exist until 1949; we invented the photocopier. It's very, very important that in this debate we must come to the conclusion that we must never trade truth for a false sense of certainty. Don't trade the truth for a false sense of certainty. We need to recognize, with the King James translators, that the process of translation is something that will continue on as long as the church is here on this earth. Thank you very much for your attention.